Management Accounting Math Solution (Capital Budgeting-1)

Posted by Ripon Abu Hasnat on Sunday, November 8, 2015 | 0 comments


Problem:
The Azad Int Ltd. is contemplating to invest in a new project that would require procurement of a machine costing Tk.25,50,000; and a working capital of Tk.1,00,000. The project is expected provide benefits for five years. The expected profit before depreciation and tax from the project is as below:
Year
Profit before Tax and Depreciation
1st year
8,50,000
2nd year
7,00,000
3rd year
6,50,000
4th year
6,00,000
5th year
4,50,000
 (The policy of the company is to depreciate fixed assets on straight line basis over the period of the asset. Salvage value of the machine is expected to be Tk.50,000. Assume a 40% tax rate and cost of capital of 10%)
Required: Determine the acceptability of the project on the basis of (i) Payback period; (ii) ARR; (iii) NPV; (iv) IRR; (v) Profitability Index.
(The present values of Tk1 for five years at 10% are 0.9091; 0.8264; 0.7513; 0.6830; 0.6209)
Solution:
Depreciation = Cost – Salvage value/No. of year in lifetime = 25,50,000 – (50,000/5) = 5,00,000.
Total Investment = 25,50,000 (Machine price) + 1,00,000 (Working capital) = 26,50,000.
Statement of cash inflow:
Particulars
1st year
2nd year
3rd year
4th year
5th year
Profit before Tax & Depreciation
Less Depreciation
8,50,000
5,00,000
7,00,000
5,00,000
6,50,000
5,00,000
6,00,000
5,00,000
4,50,000
5,00,000
Profit before Tax
Less Tax @40%
3,50,000
1,40,000
2,00,000
80,000
1,50,000
60,000
1,00,000
40,000
(50,000)
-
Profit after Tax
Add depreciation
2,10,000
5,00,000
1,20,000
5,00,000
90,000
5,00,000
60,000
5,00,000
(50,000)
5,00,000
Cash before Terminal cash inflow
Add Salvage value at 5th year
Add working Capital
7,10,000
-
-
6,20,000
-
-
5,90,000
-
-
5,60,000
-
-
4,50,000
50,000
1,00,000
7,10,000
6,20,000
5,90,000
5,60,000
6,00,000
Required 1: (Pay Back Period (PBP)):
Year
Cash inflow
Cumulative cash inflow
1
7,10,000
7,10,000
2
6,20,000
13,30,000
3
5,90,000
19,20,000
4
5,60,000
24,80,000
5
6,00,000
30,80,000
PBP = 4 + (Total investment – 4th year cumulative cash inflow)/5th year cash inflow
        = 4 + (26,50,000 – 24,80,000)/6,00,000 = 4.28 years

Required 2: Average rate of return:
ARR= (Average annual profit / Average investment)*100
        =[{(2,10,000+1,20,000+90,000+60,000-50,000)/5}/(26,50,000+50,000)/2]*100=(86,000/13,50,000)*100
        = 6.37%
Required 3: Net Present Value (NPV) calculation:
Year
Cash flow
Discount factor@10%
Present value
1
7,10,000
0.9091
6,45,467
2
6,20,000
0.8264
5,12,368
3
5,90,000
0.7513
4,43,267
4
5,60,000
0.6830
3,82,480
5
6,00,000
0.6209
3,72,540
Present Value of cash
Less, investment
=23,56,116
=(26,50,000)
Net Present Value (NPV)
(293884)
Required 4: Internal Rate of Return (IRR):
Since the NPV at 10% discounting rate is negative; Let us take lower discounting rate 5%
Therefore,
Present Value = {7,10,000/(1+0.05)+(620000)/(1+0.05) +5,90,000/(1+0.05)
+5,60,000/(1+0.05) +6,00,000/(1+0.05) } – 26,50,000 (total investment)
= (6,76,190.48 + 5,62,358.28 + 5,09,664.18 + 4,60,713.39 + 4,70,115.70) - 26,50,000 (total investment)
= 26,77,488 – 26,50,000 (total investment)
= 27,488.
IRR= A+C/C-D(B-A)
=5% +27,488/27,488-(-2,93,884)*(10%-5%)
=5% + 27,488/321372 * 5%
=5% +0.0855*5%
=0.05+0.0042 = 0.0542 = 5.42%
Here,
A= Lower discounting rate
B= Higher discounting rate
C=NPV of lower discounting rate
D= NPV of higher discounting rate
Required 5: Calculation of Profitability Index (PI)
PI = PV of cash inflow/PV of investment cost
     = 23,56,116/26,50,000 = 0.889 = 0.89 (Approximated)
Ans:
i)                   Pay Back Period 4.28 years
ii)                ARR = 6.37%
iii)              NPV = (-2,93,884)
iv)              PI = 0.89
 
Comments: 
Out of 5 years project life, the investment will return within 4.28 years, ARR is 6.37% which is lower than cost of capital, PI is less than 1 and NPV value negative, So the project is not acceptable.

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